Re[2]: [tied] PIE prek'- ; prok' ; prk'- 'to ask'

At 8:41:14 PM on Wednesday, March 8, 2006, alexandru_mg3 wrote:

>>> This misses George's point completely. If the Slavs
>>> already had a word meaning 'cause', what was it, and why
>>> did they borrow another after they got to the Balkans?
>>> You surely don't seriously want to maintain that they
>>> had no word for it before then, do you?

> Brian, seems that you have problems to understand the
> borrowing processes too:

No, I don't. I'm perfectly well aware that some rather
surprising things get borrowed. George's question is still
a legitimate one, and you've still not answered it.

> To come back with a question: "Why the Irish people lost
> the Irish language and switch to English" => based on your
> model=> "they didn't have any word previously" otherwise
> that process would have been impossible ... Marius

Oh, don't be silly: this isn't even remotely a parallel
situation.

> P.S. : So is very possible to have that word and to adopt
> a similar one too. Even so, I have answered to George
> telling him that the meaning 'cause' is a more recent
> one....

I know what you said. As I pointed out last time, it's
utterly irrelevant to his question. It's clear to me that
either you don't understand the question, or you prefer to
avoid it.

Brian