From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 43738
Date: 2006-03-09
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, george knysh <gknysh@...>[...]
> wrote:
>> --- alexandru_mg3 <alexandru_mg3@...> wrote:
>>> Being for sure now, a later formation could be : anThis misses George's point completely. If the Slavs already
>>> internal one or a loan *=> you need to accept at least
>>> the possibility to be a loan once it couldn't be derived
>>> directly from PIE)
>> ****GK: If a term can be understood to be the outcome
>> of an internal development, the "possibility" of a
>> loan becomes utterly remote.******
>> Now let me ask you this: why do you suppose Slavs had to
>> "borrow" a foreign concept as fundamental as "cause"?
> I don't know...maybe because that concept wasn't 'so
> fundamental' for them as you think (this is a joke,
> George)
>> How did they express this concept prior to
>> their advent into the Balkans? On the totally
>> incredible assumption that they had no such concept of
>> their own before the 6th century AD, why would they
>> not have borrowed it from the language of other
>> powerful neighbours such as the Sarmatians or the
>> Goths? Or even the Greeks?
> Now seriously:
> It's simple: because the meaning 'cause' is a later
> generalization (any generalization arrived 'later',
> Some additional Notes (not linked with the topic): a) INo, it isn't: George said nothing about *more* or *less*
> will exclude from your 'assertions' the paragraph with
> 'that powerfull neighbours' ...and of course, 'the less
> powerfull ones', isn't it, George?
> b) However even taking your 'non-democratic-context' intoHe didn't say that, either.
> account => if you quote here Sarmatians, Goths etc...'as
> more powerfull nations' than the 'Roman Empire' for sure
> you have some additional problems...