From: Patrick Ryan
Message: 43283
Date: 2006-02-07
----- Original Message -----From: mkelkar2003Sent: Monday, February 06, 2006 11:36 PMSubject: [Nostratic-L] Re: Why are Indo-Europeanist opposed to a "prto-language" for all of humanity--- In Nostratic-L@yahoogroups.com, "etherman23" <etherman23@...> wrote:
>
> I think the reason is probably because there's no convincing evidence
> that Proto-World ever existed.
>
http://home.entouch.net/dmd/babel.htm
http://www.zompist.com/langorg.htm
http://ehl.santafe.edu/ruhlen.htm
http://faculty.ed.umuc.edu/~jmatthew/articles/mothertongue.html
http://www.homestead.com/edenics/files/origin9.doc
M. kelkar
***Patrick:Brian was challenged 16 hours ago to show where just one of my reconstructed monosyllables (Proto-Language) was "unlikely" to be associated in a large number of languages with a given set of related meanings. A fairly modest task.After his having made wide-reaching (but, apparently empty) generalizations such as that made above by Etherman, Brian seems reluctant to put his mind or tongue to this task.
Inquiring minds want to know!Why?***