From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 43196
Date: 2006-02-01
> Hello to everyone!"Suppositions" about the origin of articulated speech, whether right or
> I am the new one on the list. My name is Dusan Vukotic (Serbia) and I am
> an amateur "tongue-digger". Thanks a lot to moderator for approving my
> membership.
>
> It seems to me that all this "laringeal" theories have mislead us and
> directed the "lingua" science to the death end of the road. Why I think so?
>
> 1. During the period when the man was mute or unable for an articulated
> speech only velars (k,g, h) were on his "menu"; just as it is today in
> the world of the vast majority of carnivorous mammals. If this
> supposition were right then any further "larinx" researches would be of
> no importance in the future.
> 2. It looks that vowels could be observed only as "auxiliary means" inIf you mean that sounds _can_ be iconic, I agree. But it's only a
> genesis of speach; i. e. they were used just for the creation of
> "notion's distinctions". Example: molest, malice, melt; blue, blow,
> bleed, blush; sun, son; tone (muscle), tank (drink heavily), thin...
> 3. Some consonants were changed in the same sense as I ascribed it toSame as above.
> vowels above (notion distinction - p,b,v,f; t,d,th; k,g,h; s,z) and,
> finally, palatals came as an "enforced economy of the tongue".