From: tgpedersen
Message: 43068
Date: 2006-01-21
>that
> On 2006-01-20 17:30, tgpedersen wrote:
>
> > And there I might pull Kuhn's argument out of the hat and claim
> > those forms were 'mots populaires' which appear late in writtenthose
> > sources. Are there other reasons for that obviousiality?
>
> Yes. Forms which may easily have arisen at any time thanks to a
> productive analogical rule are more likely to be secondary than
> that show various irregularities and bear the fingerprints of old,English
> non-productive processes. For example, the regular past tense in
> is evidently less archaic than the marginally surviving("irregular")
> strong preterites.Occam, so no _should_. Two phenonema derived from one (rather one
>Also, why _should_ thematic nouns and adjectives be
> de-compositional anyway?
>