Re: The personal pronouns of PIE (and other families) are loans

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

>
> On Mon, 16 Jan 2006 16:27:36 +0000, Rob
> <magwich78@...> wrote:
>
> >--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...>

wrote:

> >
> >Just out of curiosity:
> >
> >> That is neither easier nor correct. OE <þa:> gives ME
> >> <tho:>, <the>, which regularly develops into the plural
> >> definite article. The emphatic form OE <þa:s> becomes the
> >> ME demonstrative <tho:s(e)> > ModE <those>.
> >
> >Was the -s in origin the plural ending (ModE -(e)s)?
>
> Hardly: it's the same -s as in this, these; Du. deze; Germ.
> dieser, etc.
>
> My guess would be it's from *so, the original nominative
> (m.) of the dem. pronoun, but I'd have to look it up.

Yes, that makes much better sense. Thank you. Let me know what you
come up with.

One question: does the above mean that "that, those" is a suppletive
paradigm?

> >> The 3pl. personal pronoun, OE NA. <hi:e>, <he:o>, G.
> >> <heora>, D. <he:om> regularly gives ME N. <hi>, <hy>, G.
> >> <heore>, <here>, <hire>, <hore>, <hure>, <hare>, DA. <heom>,
> >> <hem>, <hom>, <ham> in the South.
> >
> >Where did all of those different vowel qualities come from?
>
> Different spellings/pronunciations in different
> manuscripts/dialects.

I knew that already. What I meant was, have any sound-laws been
devised to explain the different vowel qualities?

- Rob