--- alexandru_mg3 <
alexandru_mg3@...> wrote:
>
> > GK: Maybe, maybe not. If Albanian descends
> from
> > Dacian, there is no way of conclusively proving
> > anything about the location and reasons for r->l.
> And
> > judging by Piotr's suggested reconstruction of
> > "Paralatae" (which I like very much (:=)) it seems
> > clear that the Iranic Scythians were not an
> > l-exclusive ethnos either.
>
>
>
> George, I'm very confused about your position "maybe
> maybe not
> etc...". Please be more clear...
****GK: Perhaps the confusion is mutual. We've
reestablished that Scythians are not Sarmatians and
vice versa. Your initial contention was, it seems,
that ancient Romanian and Albanian switched to "r"
from "l" (in many cases) due to Iranic "ruling class"
influence. Leaving some of the linguistics aside for
the moment (e.g. your claim that "Alan" is not "Aryan"
in the Alanic language) could you clarify where
exactly an Iranic ruling class dominated a
sufficiently significant group of Dacians so as to
influence the r from l switch in all post-Dacian communities?****
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