Re: [tied] Lost of intervocalic -d- in Albanian bi-syllabic words?

alexandru_mg3 wrote:

> Piotr, I you have other explanation please post it.

The explanation is obvious: in this kind of verb stem the final
consonant was analogically retained or restored because it had survived
in the basic conjugational forms with the zero ending (<hedh>). To cite
a similar case, ModE has <chose> with final /z/ although the fricative
was voiceless in OE <ce:as>. The p.p. is <chosen>, replacing OE <coren>
with /r/. Why have we got ModE /z/ across the board? Answers on postcards.

> Next we have:
>
> 3. Latin vá-dum 'ford' => should we expect Alb. va? No, based on
> the Facts 1. and 2. we should have *vadh that is not the case.
>
> 4. Latin n'o:-dus 'knot' => should we expect Alb. nye (with the
> lost of intevocalic -d-? No, based on the Facts 1. and 2. we should
> have *nedh (early loan) or *nodh (later loan) that is not the case
>
> Note: the accent has the same position in 1,2,3,4.
>
> Conclusion:
> So Alb. va and Alb. nye or nyell are not loans from Latin.

False premise, invalid conclusion.

Piotr