[tied] Re: Albanian pre and Romanian prada

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" <alxmoeller@...> wrote:

>
> m_iacomi wrote:
> >
> > Actually, one can infer very safely that in this case the shift

from

> > /ae/ to /a/ took place in Latin:
>
> that is correct. the only explanation which will satisfy the

reality of

> "a" is that the change took place in Latin.
> the dissimilation did not happen in Rum as expected. For this see

beside

> the example with "era" the next one:
> Latin "aetatis" and Rom. "etate".
>
> > Marius Iacomi
>
> Alex
>

I also posted that ae>e finished in Lat in sec I CE (see Varro
attestation of hedus/haedus) and also that there is no assimilation
a<->e => a<->a in Romanian

So the only timeframe for an: ae<-> a => a<->a in praeda is
around or before sec I CE.
The question is : this happens in Latin praeda everywhere ? Seems
not. Is possible to happens only in some regions of the Roman
Empire? like Illyria ? Seems possible...

Marius