From: alex
Message: 42341
Date: 2005-11-30
>> How plausible is it that the -dh- in _hédhim_ etc. has beenNo. I guess Richard points out to the possiblity that the "dh" was
> restored
>> by analogy from the singular? If the 1st and 3rd singular have
>> retained the consonant, it is unsurprising if it is restored to the
>> rest of the paradigm.
>>
>> Richard.
>
> If you would ask my opinion regarding such an argument as the one
> above: my answer would be: "is just to say something...when you
> don't have any other argument ...and you refuse to accept an
> evidence"
>
> Best Regards,
> Marius