[tied] Re: Albanian pre and Romanian prada (was: Question on Albani

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...>
wrote:

> Utter nonsense. The regular development of aerá:m- (with
> unstressed /ae/ and long stressed /a:/!) would have been into

*erám-

> which could undergo assimilation to /arám-/ at _any_ time in its
> early history. The fact that we seem to be dealing with sporadic
> rather than regular assimilation does not indicate _anything_ as
> regards its age.
>
> Piotr
>

mmm......... *erám > aram? the "eram" in Rom. stil exist but this
means "I was" and if the change *eram > *aram should be true, why
there is still the *eram in the imperfect form of to be?

Actually I think the "e" in that position should yeld "ie" and
not "a". If the word entered Rom. as "*eráma", the actually output in
Rom. should have been "*ieramã" but not "aramã".

Alex