Re: Albanian pre and Romanian prada (was: Question on Albanian sy)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:

>
> altamix wrote:
>
> > I am not sure either. The plural form shows an "ã" instead of the
> > expected "e" if there has been an earier "e" > "ea" > "a".
> > I should have expected "*prezi" but the plural is "prãzi" and that
> > will speak for an "a" there, not for an "e".
>
> Not if we assume that the effect of /pr-/ is similar to that of /p-/,
> which retracts an unstressed *e (as well as *ae, *i, e:, *oe) to ã,

cf.

> <pãcat>.

How are you removing the stress in the derivation of "prãzi"?

> Cf. also Rom. prãdá < praeda:re.

But the present singular has prad- - prad, prazi, prádã. The -ã- is
what one should expect from the lack of stress.

Richard.