Re: [tied] Re: Indo-Iranian Vowel Collapse (was: IIr 2nd Palatalisa

On Thu, 17 Nov 2005 19:39:54 +0000, Richard Wordingham
<richard.wordingham@...> wrote:

>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mkelkar2003" <smykelkar@...> wrote:
>
>> p. 6, 17, 18
>>
>> http://www.indoeuropean.nl/ied/pdf/pre-greek.pdf
>
>I think you've misunderstood the term 'pre-Greek' as used in that
>paper. It's being used to mean the language from which Greek dialects
>have borrowed a lot of words. It does not refer to an ancestral form
>of Greek (however varied the ancestral dialects be). The vacillations
>discussed are no more significant for Greek than the vacillation
>between 'a' and 'e' or 'o' and 'u' in English loans from Arabic.
>
>I think it's a misuse of the prefix 'pre-',

Yes. Since Greek is considered to be a single language,
Pre-Greek should mean a reconstructed ancestral form of
Greek (in the case of language _families_, the proper prefix
is Proto-: so Pre-Greek, but Proto-Slavic).

Beekes should have used something like Pre-Para-Greek (or
Proto-Para-Greek).

>though not nearly as bad
>as, for example, 'Proto-Bangani' to mean the language from which
>Bangani derived its centum word forms.

(Proto-)Sub-Bangani?

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...