From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 42125
Date: 2005-11-16
> I thought it unlikely that, having gone through a radical vowelreduction
> once before, after which the Ablaut-vowel developed into *e and *o,that Old
> Indian would be subjected to a similar radical vowel reduction, <e>and <o>
> becoming <a>. But, it appears to be the only reasonable explanation.Why Dravidian influence? Firstly, I thought Dravidian languages
> Presumably, Dravidian influence.