From: Patrick Ryan
Message: 41885
Date: 2005-11-08
----- Original Message -----
From: "mkelkar2003" <smykelkar@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Monday, November 07, 2005 12:39 PM
Subject: [tied] Re: Proto Vedic Continuity Theory of Bharatiya (Indian)
Languages
<snip>
"http://evolutsioon.ut.ee/publications/Kivisild2003a.pdf
"If we were to use the same arithmetic and logic (sensu haplography
9 is Neolithic) to give an interpretation of this table, (Table
17.3), THE STRAIGHTFORWARD SUGGESTION WOULD BE THAT BOTH (NEOLITHIC)
AGRICULTURAL AND INDO-EUROPEAN LANGUAGES AROSE IN INDIA and from
there, spread to Europe (emphasis in the original)."
***
Patrick:
There is nothing straightforward about that suggestion!
Who in his right mind would advocate agriculture existing anywhere 40-50
kbyp?
What is wrong with the model that humans emigrated from India 40-50 kbyp,
went into Mesopotamia and Southern Iran, had their genes "westernized" over
a period of 35 ky or so, and returned to Bharat with a newly developed
language called Indo-Aryan?
***
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