From: mkelkar2003
Message: 41881
Date: 2005-11-08
>The Rig Veda does not even say that the composers are indigenous and
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mkelkar2003" <smykelkar@...> wrote:
> >
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, george knysh <gknysh@...> wrote:
> > It seems irrational to impose of our theories on people who lived
> > thousands of years ago without regards what those people have to say
> > about themselves.
>
> The problem is that people's beliefs about their origins are
> unreliable, as in the following example:
> > Theyes there is a need for such studies. And perhaps they may not show
> > > Scythian Foundation Legend in Herodotus likewise
> > > presents the Scythians as autochtons (some 200 years
> > > only after their arrival!), but we know this is not
> > > true.*****
>
> > > > > > > > > GK: So "genetic evidence" as you
> > > > understand
> > > > > > > > it
> > > > > > > > > contradicts the verifiable "flow of
> > > > humans"
> > > > > > from
> > > > > > > > the
> > > > > > > > > north into the Indian subcontinent in
> > > > > > historical
> > > > > > > > > times?...
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > >
> > > > > > > > That it DEFINITELY does.
> > >
> > > ****GK: Since you claim that there is no genetic
> > > evidence of the Saka, Kushan, and Turco-Mongol
> > > invasions et sim., all of which clearly occurred, you
> > > cannot argue that the lack of genetic evidence for an
> > > Indo-Aryan invasion "proves" that such an invasion did
> > > not occur. This is elementary logic.*****
> >
> > I missed the last part of your sentence "historical times." You
> > were trying to trick me it seems. I am not aware of any studies that
> > have tried to track down genetic evidence of these because THERE IS
> > SIMPLY NO NEED FOR IT.
>
> Yes, there is.
> immigration implies that there was no such immigration. But this isAs long as we are drawing parallels these known invasions have not
> only valid if such an immigration would have left evidence. So, if
> these invasions left evidence, then there does not seem to have been a
> significant immigration of alien IE speakers.
> discernible evidence, then the lack of evidence of a significantArgument from silence! If there is a lack of evidence for something
> immigration of alien IE speakers is not evidence that it did not occur.
> On the other hand, there does seem to be evidence of genetic spread ofAgree. Languages have to be spread by people. Bantu and AmeriInd
> Y chromosomes from the NW of India. This may be evidence of the
> spread of self-styled 'Aryans' - but I do not think it shows that they
> originated from outside India.
>
> I don't believe George Knysh tried to trick you - it came across as a
> genuine question along the line of reasoning I presented above. Note
> the use of the word 'verifiable'!
>
> Richard.
>
> > But here is the point. IEL migrations are
> > only acceptable if corroborated by other outside evdience.
>
> Someone has to have spread the language around. The nearest I can
> think of to a language spreading but no-one moving is the spread of
> religious languages - but priests (or whatever) have usually moved in
> these cases as well, albeit it in tiny numbers.
>
> Richard.