Francesco Brighenti wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mkelkar2003" <smykelkar@...> wrote:
>
>> As always non-linguistic evidence is the ultimate > adjudicator of
> the matter. All I can say is that genetic evidence > points to a flow
> of humans from the Indian subcontinent to the north > not the other
> way round.
>
> How many tens of thousand years ago did this genetic flow occur?
>
> Francesco
Francesco, it seems Mr Kelkar is at least partly right and there are not
thousand
of years ago, but some hundred of years. Forgot the gypsies? How could
you? :-)
OK, the only bad thing here is that the linguistic influence of gypsies
plays no big role on
another IE languages but since there is a migration out of India in
medieval times,
one can consider anything one wants, including earlier migrations and
all the changes
which keeps Indic languages isolated by European IE languages should
have happened
after these ancient migrations. OK, that should be probabilities.
Reverting to a seriously meant consideration, my question here is in how
far
do Romanes and Sinti languages match the actual Indic languages from
point of view of
the phonetic aspect. The comparation appears to be interesting regarding
the lexical
data as well since even if the Sinti and Roma loaned a lot of words from
the people
they are living within or lived with, the core components of the lexical
appears to remain
their own . I am not sure on the morphological aspect of the language,
in how far these
languages have been affected by the languages around them.
Alex