From: mkelkar2003
Message: 41854
Date: 2005-11-07
>That perception might need reconsideration. The following 2005 release
>
>
> --- mkelkar2003 <smykelkar@...> wrote:
> Proto Vedic is
> > itself a branch of of Eurasiatic.
>
> ****GK: Does this make sense to any member of this
> list other than M. Kelkar and his colleague?*****
>
> > The mainstream IE theory explains this very
> > > well.
> >
> > It could. But the scenerio of migrations clearly
> > conflicts with all
> > the other data; astronomical,
>
> *****GK: I don't think the astronomy of the Vedas (if
> that is what you mean?) is accepted by the scientific
> community as a contributing datum to this
> discussion.***
> archaeological,The "Indo-Aryan" migration scenerio conflicts completely with the
>
> ****GK:The migration scenario does not conflict with
> archaeology. There are a few "soft spots", but they
> are not in the same class as your odd theory.****
>
> > geological,The evidence of the now dried up river Sarasvati conflict with the IEL
>
> ****GK: ????*****
>The early dates assigned to Sulbasutra by mathematician Seidenberg
> > mathematical,
>
> ****GK: ?????*****
>The internal chronology and geogrpahy of the Rig Veda do not provide
> textual,
>
> *****GK: Such as?****
> genetic,Not according to the latest papers of the CPHL workgroup. There are
>
> *****GK: Cf. below. I find your position incoherent,
> but maybe it's because you don't really mean what you
> seem to say in the first or second context.*****
>
> etc. On second
> > thought, i am not even
> > sure the current model works that well as is
> > generally assummed. For
> > example why is there no evoluationary contact
> > between Ind-Ir and the
> > European branches?
>
> ****GK: There is with Slavic (at least as to Iranian).
> Perhaps Baltic. The other branches had drifted away
> (geographically).*****
>If indeed such arrival did take place it would show up in the genetic
> See section 9.7 of proto-vedic
> > continuity theory.doc
> >
> > And that is why it is far closer to the truth
> > > than your view IMHO.
> >
> >
> >
> > >
> > > > > >
> All I can say is
> > that
> > > > > > genetic evidence
> > > > > > points to a flow of humans from the Indian
> > > > > > subcontinent to the north
> > > > > > not the other way round.
> > > > >
> > > > > GK: So "genetic evidence" as you understand
> > > > it
> > > > > contradicts the verifiable "flow of humans"
> > from
> > > > the
> > > > > north into the Indian subcontinent in
> > historical
> > > > > times?...
> > > >
> > > >
> > > > That it DEFINITELY does. One can look at gene
> > > > markers through a
> > > > microscope.
> > >
> > > GK: In that case, if genetics is incapable of
> > > confirming facts we know to have definitely
> > occurred
> > > (the historical in-migrations) it should not be
> > > mentioned at all as a relevant factor in the
> >
> > No sir! Now you are putting the cart before the
> > *ekwos. Linguistic
> > data is not the ultimate arbitrator of this issue.
>
> *****GK: I didn't say it was. Just that your
> understanding of the genetic evidence disqualifies it
> from being part of the discussion. If it has nothing
> to confirm the attested historical migrations into
> India, then the fact that it also has nothing to
> confirm an arrival of Indo-Aryans ca. 1500 BC or
> thereabouts cannot be an argument to prove that there
> was no such arrival.*****
> >
> > M. kelkar
> >
> > > discussion of whether pre-historic
> > migration(s)brought
> > > IA into India or not.
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
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