From: Andrew Jarrette
Message: 41313
Date: 2005-10-13
The reason I heard is that 'e:G', 'bø:G' are 19th century
hypercorrect literal forms. The pronunciaton usedto
be /ai?/, /boI?/. The motive might also have been political
Scandinavianism of the 1840's.
-- Very interesting, and very believable. Similar hypercorrect forms occur in English when many people pronounce the "l" in "calm", and I believe probably also when they pronounce the "t" in "often".
But did political Scandinavianism prescribe literal pronunciation, or more etymological pronunciation, or avoidance of dialectal pronunciation, or what? I don't know if there have been similar movements to "correct" (if I understand the practice of "political Scandinavianism" correctly) the English language, especially ones that have succeeded.
Also, is (or should be) /aI?/ the regular outcome of *eik? And /oI?/ of *oe:k (of whatever origin)?
Andrew