Re: [tied] Re: Gypsies again

----- Original Message -----
From: "Miguel Carrasquer" <mcv@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Sunday, October 02, 2005 5:47 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Gypsies again


> On Sun, 02 Oct 2005 17:18:15 -0500, Patrick Ryan
> <proto-language@...> wrote:
>
> >----- Original Message -----
> >From: "Miguel Carrasquer" <mcv@...>
> >> >> 3sg. caká:ra. The /a:/ must come from /o/.
> >> >>
> >> >
> >> >***
> >> >Patrick:
> >> >
> >> >And why is that?
> >> >
> >> >Old Indian <a:> can come from PIE *e:, *a:, or *o: according to the
> >> >current
> >> >theory.
> >>
> >> And *o in an open syllable (Brugmann's law).
> >>
> >> >What disproves that Old Indian simply used vRddhi where non-Old Indian
> >> >used
> >> >/o/?
> >>
> >> The paradigm goes:
> >>
> >> cakára
> >> cakártha
> >> caká:ra
> >> cakr.má
> >> etc.
> >>
> >> Notice that the singular has */o/:
> >>
> >> *k(W)e-k(W)ór-h2a => cakára
> >> *k(W)e-k(W)ór-th2a => cakártha
> >> *k(W)e-k(W)ór-e => caká:ra
> >>
> >> No other vowel will produce an /a:/ in the 3sg. only.
> >>
> >
> >***
> >Patrick:
> >
> >I am under the impression that the conversion upon which you are relying
> >calls for PIE *o to become OI <a:>. Or will you say that it happens only
> >with *o in PIE-open syllables?
>
> Actually, *o in Indo-Iranian open syllables. I do not know
> for sure if e.g. the accusative *podm. had an open or a
> closed first syllable in PIE (I suspect there was a shift
> from asyllabic --Polish-style-- pronunciation of resonants
> to syllabic --Czech-style-- pronunciation, and that it may
> happened before the breakup of PIE). In any case, Skt.
> pa:dam has /o/ > /a:/ in open syllable.
>
> =======================
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> mcv@...

***
Patrick:

And, in the case of pá:t?

***