Re: [tied] Re: Gypsies again

----- Original Message -----
From: "P&G" <G&P@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Sunday, October 02, 2005 3:08 AM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Gypsies again


> > Desperate as the attempts have been to identify it, there are _no_
> > traces
> > of this Ablaut-phoneme in Anatolian or Indian.
>
> Is "Indian" a misprint? Or do you refer to something other than
> Indo-Aryan?
> e/o/zero ablaut is all over the place in Sanskrit, and exactly where we
> predict it for PIE, eg -o- grade in perfect singular, zero in
> lural; -o-
> grade in causatives, ablaut in nouns (strong/weak stems), same in verbs,
> etc.
>
> Peter

***
Patrick:

Yes, it was the typographer's fault!

I probably should have written Indo-Iranian.

Now there certainly is a variation in Indo-Iranian between <a> and <Ø>, and
we can justifiably call that Ablaut.

And we certainly have <a:> as well as <a>.

But why do you not show me an *o-grade in the perfect singular, for openers?

***