From: etherman23
Message: 40805
Date: 2005-09-28
>'proffer',
> ***
> Patrick:
>
> Well, firstly, I think the meaning for *ghabh- in Latn praebeo:,
> OHG geban, 'give', and Lithuanian gabenĂ¹, 'take away', is theoriginal one.
> I believe this word originally referred to a ritual act of hangingthings on
> a tree or post as an offering to a deity or ruler. The giverpresents, and
> the receptor can say: "This gold has been offered to me" = "Itake/have this
> gold (via an offering)". The term *ghabh(o)lo- is instructive in thisWhere is the meaning "place where offerings are hanged" attested? From
> regard: '*place where offerings are hanged, fork of branch'.
>
> So I see no point in connecting *ghabh- with either *kab- or *kap-.
> Patrick:before
>
> If the word started out of PIE *k(h)a:p-, and was shortened to *kap-
> the Ablaut vowel was introduced in some languages, you would haveshow up in
> <kapat.i:>, 'two handfuls'. We should not expect all PIE *k(h) to
> IIr as *kh.Why not? I could understand something like **khaph > **kaph in IIr,
> ***having
>
> > > Without boring you with details, I suspect strongly that the word
> > > should be reconstructed as **k(h)a(:)p- from a pre-PIE *kho?ap-,
> > which would
> > > radically change the root form. By itself, *kap- implies *kaHp- or
> > *k(h)ap-,
> > > leading to **ka:p- since *a cannot be maintained in PIE without
> > > undergone (temporary) lengthening through either a laryngeal or lostPresumably a Semitic language.
> > and
> > > compensated aspiration.
> >
> > The IIr evidence seems to rule this out since it has no voiceless
> > aspirate. I also didn't see any form with *a:. If one doesn't believe
> > in PIE *a then this pretty much has to be a borrowing.
>
> ***
> Patrick:
>
> And what language do you suppose to be the source?
>
> ***