Re: ka and k^a [was: [tied] *kW- "?"] and the origin of IE thematic

From: Grzegorz Jagodzinski
Message: 40653
Date: 2005-09-26

glen gordon wrote:

> On the non-existence of a vowel system without an
> "a"-sound (ie: low vowel), Grzegorz shows examples:
>> 1) The Late Common Slavic vowel system had no a's.
>
> I really think you don't understand what I'm saying
> at all. The front-back dimension is irrelevant. All
> we are talking about here is the vertical "high-low"
> dimension. That latter dimension **always** exists
> in any language.
>
> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Slavic
>
> See how they list the vowels? You're wrong.

I will tell you something extremely ridiculous.You despises my views and
even term them irritating, and you cite me at the same time.

"They" means "I", i.e. Grzegorz Jagodzin'ski personally :-) It is my text,
with small or no corrections. And, how are you feeling now?

And so, "they" (in fact I) wrote:

a.. i, a, u were long vowels;
a.. e, o were short vowels;

Haven't you noticed it? What is the difference between e and o in the
vertical dimension? And they were the only short vowels in LCS (we are not
talking about long vowels or about ultrashort vowels).

>> The British English system has not either (neither
>> front /æ/, central /^/ nor back /O/ are low
>> vowels, [...]
>
> *Which* "British English"?? So far this statement
> is meaningless.
>
>
>> 2) IE /e/ may have been /æ/ [...]
>
> Now you're supporting your theory with more theory.
> Illogical.

No, it is only another possible argument against the statement that PIE had
to have /a/. I do not know if it had /a/. I did not live then. But you do
know that it had /a/. And this is the difference between us.

Btw. there are people who believe that the t - d - dh system cannot have
existed because there are no such systems. Of course we know now that it is
not true. You seem to think similarly to those people.

>> If a word is six thousand years old, why couldn't
>> it be 10 thousand years old?
>
> You're confusing probability with possibility yet
> again. How irritating.

Dear Glen, tell me what would have happened if you had written "it is a
question of less probability" instead of telling me what I am confusing and
what is irritating? Do I write what irritates me in your views?

> = gLeN

You say that 6 means probability while 10 means possibility. But what about
7? 8? 9? Can you tell me where is the boundary? You can surely see it, but I
cannot.... and this is so irritating?

Grzegorz J.




___________________________________________________________
To help you stay safe and secure online, we've developed the all new Yahoo! Security Centre. http://uk.security.yahoo.com