At 12:46:42 on Friday, 23 September 2005, Patrick Ryan
wrote:
> From: "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...>
>> Final stops, especially /t/, are often (pre-) glottalized
>> in American and Canadian English, and from there it's a
>> short step to losing the original articulation entirely
>> and getting simply [?].
> Do you have a reference from a phonetician supporting your
> superior listening abilities?
Some readily available examples referring to the realization
of /t/ as [?]:
<
http://www.cs.indiana.edu/~port/teach/541/allophones.html>:
/t/ (and sometimes /p,k/) -> [?] /__ [+] or /__ N
(where [+] is syllable boundary)
<
http://odin.prohosting.com/hkkim/cgi-bin/kaeps/eng_phon.htm>:
Quoting from Ladefoged's _Course in Phonetics_: This does
not apply to /t/ before syllabic [n] as in 'mutton'
['m&?n] because the /t/ there has become a glottal stop.
(The [n] in the transcription of 'mutton' is marked as
syllabic in the original.) This is in a discussion of
American pronunciation.
<www.lpl.univ-aix.fr/~AMLaP2004/Final_Abstracts_pdf/dautricourt.pdf>
<
http://www.indiana.edu/~hlw/PhonProcess/accents.html>:
The glottal stop is a possible allophone of /t/ in GA, but
only in the context where it follows a vowel and precedes
a consonant, for example, in _outright chaos_ and _let me
go_.
The realization of /t/ as [?t] (and sometimes of /k/ and /p/
as [?k] and [?p] resp.) before a syllable boundary or nasal
is commonplace and should need no REFERENCE.
Brian