From: squilluncus
Message: 40118
Date: 2005-09-19
>semantic need to distinguish ablative from dative?
> Then why have a separate ablative singular if there was no
>There are scenarios that oblique plural markers are of late date.
> Still curious,
>
> Andrew
>Romance "de",
>
>
> squilluncus <grvs@...> wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Andrew Jarrette <anjarrette@...>
> wrote:
>
> > 3. Is there any evidence at all for an ablative plural/dual
> ending in Proto-IE? Was it always identical to the dative
> plural/dual? Does this state of affairs not lead to confusion?
> >
>
> It might be that it was the dative that was identical to the
> ablative having the ending os.
> In athematic singular os is a genitive-ablative like
> except in Hittite where there is a difference (-as, -ats).fallen
>
> Confusion?
> It might appear that dative and ablative are opposites. But the
> opposite of ablative is rather the directive/allative (a case
> into disuse with only some traces left).os,
>
> For indirect object no marker is needed in English:
> "I gave those from (the circle of) the ship-crew (*naxw-tax-mbhy-
> i.e. the sailors) a sheep."Service.
>
> In this scenario os is added to the the postposition * (a)mbhi-.
>
> Miguel has explained it as a mere merger of former abl.
> **-abhí-âtu and dat. **-abhi-á-atu.
>
> Whichever, there is no need for an opposition between
> separative/ablative and the one(s) benefitting from the action of
> the clause.
>
> Lars
>
>
>
>
>
>
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