How many velar series in P.I.E? (was Re: [tied] *kW- "?")

Instead of two velar series, would it not be better to reconstruct
one uvular series and one velar series? Is there any articulatory
room for two true velar series?

Or is "velar here" just a general consept that does not say exactly
the articulatore place of each series?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "elmeras2000" <jer@...> wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "david_russell_watson"
<liberty@...>
> wrote:
>
> > Ever since I read Lehmann's argument I've been puzzled why
> > more Indo-Europeanists (at least those on this list) don't
> > seem to accept it, and also why the Nostraticists (at least
> > those on Nostratic-L) are trying to take off from a P.I.E.
> > with three velar series when its earliest stages would have
> > had no more than two.
> >
> > What's wrong with Lehmann's view?
>
> First, that he does not give valid reasons. Second, that the facts
are
> against his choice: Take Pokorny or LIV and you will find quite
many
> roots beginning with *ke-, i.e. roots attested in satem languages
and
> showing velar, not palatal before the reflex of *e.
>
> Jens