From: Patrick Ryan
Message: 40054
Date: 2005-09-16
----- Original Message -----
From: "Rob" <magwich78@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Friday, September 16, 2005 10:21 AM
Subject: [tied] Re: IE thematic presents and the origin of their thematic
vowel
--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "nathrao" <nathrao@...> wrote:
<snip>
Probably through derived aorists, since iteratives are by nature
durative.
***
Patrick:
If 'durative' means 'a duration' then 'iterative' is something different
because it means 'several durations'.
<snip>
You're talking about the augmentless "past tense" forms, right? I
agree with Sihler in that there is nothing inherently past-tense
about them; on the surface, they are simply unmarked for anything
besides person and number. I say "on the surface" because these
forms tend to have zero-grade of the root (e.g. Gk. _lípon_ vs.
_élipon_), which means they must have been accented on the ultimate
syllable.
***
Patrick:
Both these Greek forms are zero-grade roots. There is no "vs."
***
<snip>