From: Rob
Message: 39946
Date: 2005-09-12
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...>wrote:
>Modern English actually seems to have such a distinction. For
> > My gut feeling is that the durative/punctual contrast is not
> > terribly fundamental in historical terms, [...]
> > inherently "present" or "aorist" value of a verb was a
> > function of its meaning, so that it tended to be used in
> > certain contexts, accompanied by certain adverbs, etc.,
> > but didn't have to be specially marked for aspect.
>
> The thing to do is to look for contemporary languages that have
> durative vs punctual as a fundamental distinction and study them,
> to understand how PIE may have evolved.