Lars in connection Japanese 'san':
> Couldn't French feminines with single consonant
> + e instable be considered to form a similar mora?
I don't think you understood. The word "san" would
be normally considered one syllable by most English
speakers I've encountered. However, in Japanese,
it's considered *two* morae. The "n" is pronounced
just as long as the first syllable /sa/: sa - n.
So this has nothing to do with French where "san"
would also be considered one syllable. You're
probably thinking of words like "donne" which in
Europe tend to be pronounced with a subtle schwa
for "e" (aka /dOn&/) thereby making it two syllables
while in Quirky Quebec, Nifty New Brunswick or
Manic Manitoba, all us Canadians like to do away with
those pesky schwas altogether (aka /dOn/) and make it
_one_ syllable. Again, that ain't like in Japanese
where "don" would be pronounced with _two_ morae:
do-n.
> Intervocalic French s'es constitute an allophone
> /z/ which is then due to be fully voiced.
Hunh? Put that in a sentence. I don't recognize
the dialect you're apparently speaking. If that
word is spelled properly, -s would not be pronounced
at all (as in: Tu es, "You are") and the initial s-
is **ALWAYS** pronounced as /s/. If you're pronouncing
this with a /z/, there's something wrong with your
French teacher.
= gLeN
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