[tied] Re: Dybo's law

> >
> >I had the passing thought that -tU was chosen since -tI was used

for

> >infinitives (although to a different stem). Does that make sense?
>
> No, the infinitive suffix is -ti (< *-tei). The supine has
> -tU.

True, Czech and Serbocroat has -ti. Does that mean that Russian -tI
with myagkiy znak is a later development i > I ?


Torsten