[tied] Re: Dybo's law

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> In OCS and what underlies modern Russian pronunciation. Old
> Russian and e.g. modern Ukrainian have expected -(e)tI.
>
> In general, we find forms with -0, with -tU and with -tI in
> Slavic (also in the 3pl.). -tI is the expected reflex of
> PIE *-ti. Zero is the expected reflex of PIE *-t, the
> secondary (past/injunctive or subjunctive) ending, and I
> believe that -tU is also a regular outcome of PIE *-t.
> Compare similar alternations in the personal pronoun (j)a ~
> (j)azU, and in prepositions such as o ~ ob ~ obU. In Old
> Novgorodian, the forms with -0 are generally used in a modal
> sense, while the forms with -tI are used in
> declarative/indicative context (Zaliznjak, p. 119-120), so
> that fits in nicely.

I haven't got access to the raw facts where I am, and I would really
like to see some examples of clear sentences that invite this
differentiated analysis. If it is correct it may lend credence to
Forssman's identification of -tU with Sanskrit -tu, the ending of
the 3rd person imperatives. Could that be substantiated?

Jens