From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 39621
Date: 2005-08-13
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:By itself that does not explain it. There are similar
>> On Fri, 12 Aug 2005 08:40:43 +0000, tgpedersen
>> <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
>>
>> >Thank you for the clear explanation. I suppose this means
>that 'mne'
>> >and 'mnoy' once contained a jer (between m and n),
>whereas 'toboy'
>> >and 'tebye' had a full vowel. The next question is how that jer
>> >arose; "me" has full vowel also in the paradigm: 'menya'. Was
>there
>> >an alternation in the Proto-Slavic paradigm of "me" between jer
>and
>> >full vowel?
>>
>> Yes.
>>
>> acc/gen. mene
>> dat/loc. mInê
>> ins. mUnojoN
>>
>> as opposed to:
>>
>> acc/gen. tebe, sebe
>> dat/loc. tebê, sebê
>> ins. tobojoN, sobojoN
>
>And even this is not the starting point of the causation chain.
>Is the alternation between stressed full vowel and unstressed jers
>in the "me" word, unlike the alternation between stressed full vowel
>and unstressed full vowel in the "thee" and "himself" words, caused
>by the position of the vowel before a nasal, or how?