From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 39614
Date: 2005-08-12
>Miguel Carrasquer wrote:I have doubts about whether the doubly thematic subjunctive
>
>> Neither your theory nor mine adequately explains why the
>> Lithuanian 1sg. ending -ù is formerly acute (*-uó before
>> Leskien's law). A double thematic *-oo(m) would inevitably
>> produce a circumflex, and so would my *-o:(u), judging by
>> akmuõ < *-o:(n), etc.
>>
>> As far as I can tell, only *-oh3 could have produced the
>> required acute.
>
>But what if the loss of *m was pre-PIE in the sense that at the time of
>the IE breakup a plain long *-o: was the only realisation of the ending?
>There would have been a contrast between this *-o: and laterFor me, that's another compelling reason to believe that the
>contractions, or forms retaining a final consonant (even if the latter
>could be dropped in sandhi). One could compare the 1sg. ending with the
>animate thematic nom./acc.du. *-o:, if from analogical *-o-e. The Baltic
>development is the same.
>But I find it difficult to believe there was an *h3 in theWell, I'm reluctant too. For starters, I don't see any
>1sg. ending.