From: tgpedersen
Message: 39553
Date: 2005-08-08
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "etherman23" <etherman23@...>wrote:
> >in
> > Okay, I just had an idea. Obviously this needs to be checked out
> more,
> > but I'll throw it out anyway. Let's assume that stress (at least
> > thematic verbs) was originally on the first syllable. Then Jens'Law
> > applied only to post-stress vowels (i.e. the thematic vowel). Asyou
> > pointed out earlier there are stressed thematic vowels, so weneed an
> > explanation for this. I'm suggesting that when the stressedsyllable
> > was closed the accent shifted to the next syllable.final
>
> You are inventing problems where none exist. My (or Saussure's)
> thematic vowel rule applies to thematic vowels, stressed and
> unstressed. Why does that demand an accent shift? The descriptive
> status of the thematic vowels is fully sufficient to make them
> eligible for this rule: They are stem-final vowels, and all stem-
> vowels act this was, be they accented or not. Some say they can'ta
> accept that for a language they analyze; then they should analyze
> different language.Is 'stem-final' a phonological term?
>