--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-
language@...> wrote:
> At the PIE pre-break stage (Hittite from PIE), I believe /?/
and /h/ (from pre-PIE /h/ and /H/; Nostratic /¿/ had already become
PIE /y/) were still present.
I said earlier that was having trouble digesting your detailed
response. It turns out that my problem was understanding your
laryngeal notation. When I skipped over that I had no problem.
First of all, in your post 39241, which touched off all the
discussion of non-coloring laryngeals, you said, "... I think that,
of the four laryngeals in Nostratic (/?, h, ¿, H/), by pre-PIE, only
two remained: /?/ and /h/, neither of which had 'coloring'
properties." Let me verify my understanding:
* /?/ is the glottal stop?
* /h/ is the unvoiced glottal fricative?
* /¿/ look vaguely like a voiced pharyngeal fricative. And
* /H/ doesn't look like any IPA symbol I know of.
When you used *H in the discussion of vowel lengthening, was in the
different sense of a generic laryngeal *h/? right?
Finally I suspect you made some error in "/?/ and /h/ (from pre-
PIE /h/ and /H/" above. Surely you don't intend to say /h/ is from
pre-PIE /H/. If not, what did happen to pre-PIE /H/? And you
probably don't intend to say /?/ is from pre-PIE /h/.
Tom