Greek+Slavic

From: rex_castilliae_araguensis
Message: 38715
Date: 2005-06-17

I admit that I am not a specialist on Slavic linguistics before the
appearance of old Bulgarian texts but I think that we should not say
that Greek n Slavic had any relations before the appearance of
Bulgarians n slavs in the Balkans. I dont know how was the situation
with Slavic before the first written texts, how much it had formed a
different character of its own, and how it had merged with other
languages, but since written Greek appeared in the 10th century BC
and Slavic in the 9th century AD, there is no point in trying to
figure out which form existed first or which is 'richer', as if we
are secretly trying to prove one of these superior (this is nor a
philological neither a linguistic task, but something nationalist
teachers of the past did). IE in the southern Balkans (Greece) merged
with local Pelasgic and naturally formed a whole new different
language, Greek.
I say they merged, because the Greek lexicon contains synonyms of
different background, which were totally different when the IE and
Pelasgic tribes hadn't merged yet. For example we see both Anthropos
(probably pelasgic,preGreek) and Aner-andros meaning "MAN". But Aner
(IE) was used to denote the richer and Indo-European master, while
Anthropos was used by the Indo Europeans to denote a lower-class
Pelasgic slave or farmer. thus, we have Greek as a different language.
But what about Slavic? I dont know very well. The Slavs probably
resided in the North East of Europe and their language might be
closer to IE than Greek. They have not left any important traces of
civilization from what I know (that's not bad, since they created an
extraordinary civilization n literature later). Their name comes from
the word 'Sclavi' (slaves) because they never created their own
important state before the 9th c. BC. This is probably the best
etymology i know, because in Byzantine sources they are also
called "sKlaveni" and "sKlavi". There is another etymology:from
Slava=glory in slavic. But if that's true why did the byzantines
included a K in their name or just a 'th' (sklaveni or sthlaveni
sometimes).Besides, they appeared near the Greeks after the 9th
century. the peoples came in contact from that point and on.
so, sure there are common IE words in both languages, but in the form
of COGNATES, that differ a lot (ex. Gignosco, Znayu). Most common
words in these languages are because of loanword-flows. (greek and
bulgarian: tsigara,ela!, hartija, kutija, vlastar, piper etc from gr
to bulg).


panos