Re: [tied] But where does *-mi come from?

>I suspected the mi-conjugation has its origin in a dependent
>construction, in other words its endings are those of participles or
>verbal nouns. A mi-conjugation finite form (-nt) where one expects
>an infinitive (or verbal noun) strengthens my suspicion. This is the
>old idea that the -nt- of the 3rd pl. is identical to the -nt- of
>the present participle (also a type of verbal noun).

I might agree with your conclusion,but I don't think Latin facio + clause
can be used to support it. Facio + subjunctive - a kind of paratactic
construction - is the norm. Facio + inifinitive is rare and late.

Peter

[This refers to the following discussion:

> >Latin facio: can be construed with an infinitive.

However, ...'facio' is

> >construed with a dependent
> >clause without any conjunction,
>
> Yes, that's not uncommon. The verb after facio will be

subjunctive. ]