Re: [tied] But where does *-mi come from?

----- Original Message -----

From: tgpedersen

To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com

Sent: Monday, June 13, 2005 8:28 AM

Subject: [tied] But where does *-mi come from?

Some nominal and verbal suffixes are identical, as Alscher has noted,
e.g.

locative *-i and primary *-i
dative *-ei and middle *-oi
'locative' *-r and middle *-r
[endingless locative and secondary?]

Latin has a "double ablative", a dependent construction where a
subject and a past pasticiple (*-tó-) of its verb are given ablative
endings. Similar constructions exist in OCS (with dative) and Sanskrit
(several cases). Perhaps such a dependent construction is the origin
of the mi-conjugation?

Torsten

***

Patrick:

 

OK, I see now where you are headed.

 

Of course, this is TIED rather than Nostratic-L, but still let me say that, with the exception of -*i (from -*ye), each of the endings you list have a different origin:

 

dative *-ei is from PN *hey-; middle -*(o)iH1- is from PN *ye?

'locative' -r* is from PN *ra; middle -*r is from PN *re

 

PN=pre-Nostratic

 

 

-*m is attested as -*m all over Greenberg's Eurasiatic (with the denasalized variant -*b). There is no reason to doubt its originality whatsoever.

 

***




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