[tied] Re: Romanian Verb Endings and Substratum influence (repost)

>I. Miguel, I trust more Cyril Babaev than you regarding Lithuanian:
>url: http://indoeuro.bizland.com/project/grammar/grammar12.html#8
>
>"The peculiarity of Lithuanian is the joint 3rd person form, with no
>number distinction. It was caused by the disappearance of two Indo-

Miguel wrote:

>> That's right. -t and -nt disappear....

ok. so little by little you arrive to what I said from the begiining.

BUT where are in this case the "syntactical process" that you have
talked about....when you said "not by phonological, but by syntactic
processes"???????

>II. Regarding Albanian is a non-sense to talk about here because the
>IE thematic present was lost in Albanian and replaced by other

forms.

>> Miguel wrote:
>Nonsense. Only the 2pl. has been replaced. The 3pl. -n,
>-në comes from PIE *-ont(i).

Nonsense on you side: I have talked here about Albanian thematic
present: where only the 3pl. -n,-në is Supposed to comes from PIE *-
ont(i), with a lot of reserves....
All the other IE present thematic forms was replaced in Albanian...

Regards,
Marius