Re: [tied] Re: Romanian Verb Endings and Substratum influence (repo

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 38280
Date: 2005-06-02

On Thu, 02 Jun 2005 11:03:35 +0000, alexandru_mg3
<alexandru_mg3@...> wrote:

>
>Miguel wrote:
>>There is no (phonological) merger of 3rd. person sg. and
>>plural in Baltic, like there is in the Romanian a:-verbs.
>>In Baltic, there is simply loss of the dual (*-e-te) and
>>plural (*-o-nt[i]) forms, not by phonological, but by
>>syntactic processes.
>>This only affects Baltic. Not Slavic, not Albanian, not
>>Romance.
>
>I. Miguel, I trust more Cyril Babaev than you regarding Lithuanian:
>url: http://indoeuro.bizland.com/project/grammar/grammar12.html#8
>
>"The peculiarity of Lithuanian is the joint 3rd person form, with no
>number distinction. It was caused by the disappearance of two Indo-
>European endings -t and -nt, so only a vowel remained, and since then
>all Lithuanian verbs have the same forms for "he does" and "they do".
>Another sign of analytization. "

That's right. -t and -nt disappear, but only *-t regularly
by soundlaw, not *-nt > *-n. Let alone *-te (the 3.du.
ending).

>II. Regarding Albanian is a non-sense to talk about here because the
>IE thematic present was lost in Albanian and replaced by other forms.

Nonsense. Only the 2pl. has been replaced. The 3pl. -n,
-në comes from PIE *-ont(i).


=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...