From: Daniel J. Milton
Message: 37792
Date: 2005-05-10
> Greetings all,laid
>
> I'm still wrestling with the issue of the Norse term "log".
>
> I am trying to understand how *legh- 'that which is (physically)
> down' came to mean "law".which
> At first it looks like a rather simple progression, but when I
> examine the other terms derived from *legh- I see such entries as:
> OE lecgan = to lay
> OE belecgan = to cover or surround
> OHG legar = bed, lair
> ON lagr = low
> Germanic *lega = lying flat
> OHG laga = the act of laying
>
> I see that AHDIER states law derives from ON *lagu, lag- = that
> is set down.placing
>
>
> What I wonder is how a term describing such a physical act of
> something down - came to mean the conceptual act of establish laws.'to
>
> Can anyone help clarify this for me please?
>
> Could it also possibly be that our current theory is incorrect; and
> that "log" stems not from 'legh' but rather from 'leg 1' meaning
> speak'??***********
> I don't see leg-1 producing o-grade forms in the Germanic tongues,
> but the association with 'lex' and the thought of law as being a
> decree, combine to make me wonder about such a possibility.
>
> As always, any help would be greatly appreciated!
>
> Regards,
> -Aydan