IE Divergence (was: Indo-European Linguistics: Backwards)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <G&P@...> wrote:

> But
> how do you get outer dialects to converge on Garrets model? And

that's only

> one of the many unbelievable things about it!

Where does Garrett's model require this to have happened? What he
presents seems to be in the tradition of the wave model, for which the
non-Balkan Romance languages offer a good example. (I wonder if there
are any useful Tocharian-Romanian analogies to be drawn!)

Richard.