From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 37045
Date: 2005-04-11
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:Yes.
>> On Sat, 09 Apr 2005 21:29:32 +0000, etherman23
>> <etherman23@...> wrote:
>>
>> I'm assuming /e e: o(:)/ (with marginal /i u a(:)/).
>>
>> In any case, we can avoid complicating things as I did
>> above, by simply saying that laryngeals do not colour long
>> vowels (essentially *e:), nor *o.
>
>You practically have the neo-grammarian vowel system plus three
>laryngeals (I assume you're only advocating three).
>I'd say thatIf I understand you correcly, you're suggesting that if we
>pretty complicated already. In the laryngeal theory we are assuming
>an e~o ablaut, so it doesn't explain where that comes from to begin
>with. It really only explains the other ablaut forms. But if we're
>going to assume long vowels anyway, as well as /a/ then the
>laryngeals become superfluous. The a~o ablaut can be explained by
>anaology. If we assume one noncoloring laryngeal (a la Szemerenyi)
>then we can also explain e:~o: and a:~o:.
>
>> But the only theory known to explain all the facts is de
>> Saussure's.
>
>I'm a bit skeptical of that.
>
>> We find e:, a: and o: where we would expect full grade (e.g.
>> present ti-the:-mi), and we find Greek e, a, o (I-I /i/,
>> other /a/) wherer we would expect to see zero grade (e.g.
>> past pass. ptc. thetos).
>
>Well, if we accept that there were original long vowels then I don't
>see the need for the laryngeal. We'd expect to find long vowels in
>some positions. Whatever process causes the full grade~zero grade
>change could also cause the lengthened grade~full grade change. Greek
>would then simply restore the full-grade in place of the zero-grade.