From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 36874
Date: 2005-03-29
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:To explain the first vowel of Basque berun (possibly *belum
>
>> I also don' t quite see how "all later variants of the word
>> in Greek [molubdos, bolubdos, molibos, molibdos, bolimos,
>> bolibos] can be derived from the shape attested in Mycenaean
>> [mo-li-wo-do]".
>
>The most promising source seems to be something close to pre-Latin
>*pluB-no-, borrowed as *bolubno- (approximately) by the non-IE
>intermediary, and then as bolubdos, molubdos, etc. by Greek. Such an
>etymological trajectory would minimise the number or
>arbitrary "mutations" required to derive the attested forms.
> bele-. The Basque words looks like a cross between*belebo and *bolom(b)o.