From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 36803
Date: 2005-03-17
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:From my old Leiden copy of Braeuer's Sl. Sprachwissenschaft
>
>On Slavic *dUbrI vel sim. I'd asked:
>
>> >By the way, how do you guys explain the coexistence of "I" (e.g.
>> >R. "debr'" or for that matter the Albanian toponym "Dibar")
>and "U"
>> >(e.g. Czech debr^) in the first syllable?
>
>Then Miguel wrote:
>
>> That looks like yer-Umlaut.
>
>
>But is it admissible to operate with yer-Umlaut outside OKS, e.g., to
>account for the "e" in R. "debr'"? (I shouldn't have mentioned
>Czech "debr^" here, which is neutral, cf. "den" 'day', and hence does
>not attest in favour of "U").
>As a matter of fact, judging both by the OCS evidence and by theThat's why I initially thought that a different etymology
>extra-OCS examples in Vasmer (not to speak of "Dibar") the evidence
>appears to be pretty heavily weighted in favour of "I".