From: P&G
Message: 36674
Date: 2005-03-08
> Throughout his book Andrew Sihler frequently translates IE optatives withWhen he's translating Greek, it's fine. Greek uses of the optative include
> the English conditional formant, ... in >addition to occasional
> translations as "I may love" (for philoie:n) and "I may hire out" (for
> misthoie:n). Now is this >translation of the optative by the English
> conditional correct?
>Is this the meaning of the optative?Each daughter language of PIE developed the resources of PIE in its own
>And is the other translation, the one indicating possibility ("I mayYes, for Greek.
>love"), also correct?
>Isn't a wish or desire expressed by desiderative forms, or by a verb suchYes, but languages often have more than one way of saying something.
>as *wel-, meaning "want (to)"?
> isn't the precative also an expression of a wish or desire?Yes, and it can equally be optative ("me: genoito!")
>Furthermore, how does the optative differ from the subjunctive?Particular languages make particular rules.
>was there any difference to begin with?Certainly in form, but it is hard to be certain of differences in function.
> I find the meaning of the subjunctive and optative difficult to identifyThink of them both as non-factual statements. That coves a vast range of