From: Mate Kapovic
Message: 36603
Date: 2005-03-03
----- Original Message -----
From: "Piotr Gasiorowski" <gpiotr@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Thursday, March 03, 2005 11:59 AM
Subject: Re: [tied] Stative/Perfect; Indo-European /r/
>
> On 05-03-03 10:26, Mate Kapovic wrote:
>
> > I think that in case of /r/ there are more idiosyncracies than
elsewhere.
> > Thus, a chance that an idiosyncracy will spread is bigger. They say that
the
> > French /r/ was also (king's) idiosyncracy in the beginning.
>
> But which king,
Don't know, I guess it's just one of those myths.
>and which French /r/ -- the "grasseyé" uvular trill or
> the now-normative dorso-velar approximant/fricative?
Aren't the two connected? In a way that the first one produced the second
one maybe?
>The former, as far
> as I know, is considered provincial and substandard; the latter is said
> to have spread about the time of the Revolution as a popular Parisian
> pronunciation. Some aristocrats actually condemned it as vulgar (while
> their younger cousins were already using it). The "norm" until the 18th
> century was allegedly the apical trill (which certainly doesn't mean
> that everybody used it).
>
> Piotr
>
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> Yahoo! Groups Links
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