Re: Stative/Perfect; Indo-European /r/

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...>
wrote:

> On 05-03-02 12:56, tgpedersen wrote:
>
> > Which means /v/ was French to the natives, but /w/ was not
> > necessarily native to the Normans.
>
> How come, if they'd brought it with themselves? Their leader was a
> certain _W_illiam, you know, and in the Norman dialect Old

French /w/

> was still /w/, not /gw/ > /g/, which it became in Parisian French
> (Norman werre, Parisian guerre, Norman wage, Parisian gage).
>

/w/ was not felt by the Normans to be 'native English' (ie. part of
the language of the conquered), is what I should have written.


Torsten