Re: [tied] Stative/Perfect; Indo-European /r/

----- Original Message -----
From: "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Wednesday, March 02, 2005 10:43 AM
Subject: Re: [tied] Stative/Perfect; Indo-European /r/


>We've had this discussion a long time ago on cybalist. My take on it
>is that the replacement of apical /r/ with uvular /R/ and of /w/
>with /v/ is recent and caused by French influence. The reason why it
>didn't take place in English is the early stalemate between French
>and native influence in England which meant /v/ ~/w/ became a kind
>of shibboleth, a marker for French/non-Frenchness. That didn't
>happen elsewhere.

In 19th century, the lower sociolects of London English had a complete
disappearance of the /v/ ~ /w/ distinction. But this was so stigmatized that
the process (which had already been finished) got reversed in the end of the
century and nobody mixes /v/ and /w/ anymore.

Mate