Re: [tied] Stative Verbs, or Perfect Tense

From: tgpedersen
Message: 36538
Date: 2005-03-01

> There's an idea I've been toying with for a long time, and
> perhaps the time is ripe for sharing it here. The late Polish
linguist
> Adam Weinberg once suggested, as an obiter dictum in a handbook of
IE
> morphology, that there may have been an early form of "perfect
> participle" -- a verbal adjective based on the bare reduplicated
stem
> without any suffixes. His original examples are just two: Hitt.
memal
> 'groats' < substantivised *mé-ml.h2 (or *mé-mo:l?) 'that has been
> ground', , and Lat. memor 'mindful, that reminds one (of sth.)';
> Weinberg connects the latter with *(s)mer- 'remember'. I wouldn't
> however exclude the analysis of <memor> as *mé-mr. (a variant of
> *mé-m(o)n- with final rhotacism), connecting it directly with the
root
> *men- and <memini:> (and Gk. Memn-o:n, for example). Of course I'm
aware
> of the "handbook" etymology of <memor> as *me-mn-us-, but how
about
> something more straightforward?
>
> My own addition to Weinberg's idea is the guess that the inanimate
> variant of the adjective originally had a passive meaning while
the
> animate one was active, and that the perfect itself is a denominal
> formation based on this "participle" (cf. the Slavic l-preterite).
>

If the perfect stem is a participle/verbal noun, the present stem
might be too. That would mean
1) the tematic vowel is a purely nominal suffix, not a mixed
nominal/verbal one.
2) the secondary present endings -m, -s, -t, -nt are possesive
suffixes that turn nouns, and therefore also this participle into
possessed ones, eg "my Verbing" etc; these are used in dependent
constructions (cf. the Finno-Ugric languages), later understood as
dependent clauses.
3) the so-called 'hic-et-nunc-particle' is just a plain locative
suffix which when added to the possessed participle/verbal noun
turns it into a locativic progressive gerund: "in my Verbing"
4) no copula exists; therefore: 'I (am) in-my-Verbing' is a main
clause.

Cf. Collinder: De uraliska språken
"In Proto-Uralic there was no hypotaxis in the strict sense.
Sentences were connected paratactically, and since there were no
conjunctions, it was the contents which determined the mutual
relations between sentences (clauses). In Proto-Uralic, as in the
present Uralic languages, verbal nouns of various contructions
corresponded to the dependent clauses of the Indo-European
languages..."

It seems PIE might have been in a similar situation.


Torsten